He says: If a man marries a woman with the intention of making her permissible for someone else, then later decides to keep her and does so, what is the ruling on this intention?

Is it valid or what? We ask for a detailed explanation.

In reality, it does not need elaboration or detail. Actions are judged by intentions, and everyone will have what he intended. This contract is invalid, and she is not permissible for the first husband.

The second husband must separate from her, then.

He may marry her after that with a valid contract, correct.

Did you hear, Hajjaj? I say this marriage is not valid.

There is no need for further explanation or anything else.